Answer: C) 209 Explanation: We may have (1 boy and 3 girls)or(2boys and 2 girls)or(3 boys and 1 girl)or(4 boys). Required number of ways = (C16× C34) + C26×C24  + (C36× C14) + (C46)   = (24+90+80+15)  = 209.

Answer: C) 4 days Explanation: One day work of 6 boys and 8 girls is given as 6b + 8g = 1/10 -------->(I)   One day work of 26 boys and 48 women is given as 26b + 48w = 1/2 -------->(II)   Divide both sides by 2 in (I) and then multiply both sides by 5 Now we get, 15b + 20g = 1/4. Therefore, 15 boys and 20 girls can do the same work in 4 days.

Answer: A) 36 days Explanation: Given the ratio of efficiencies of P, Q & R are 3 : 8 : 5 Let the efficiencies of P, Q & R be 3x, 8x and 5x respectively They can do work for 12 days. => Total work = 12 x 16x = 192x   Now, the required time taken by Q to complete the job alone = 162x8x = 24 days.

Answer: B) 23 Explanation: If he wants to give these books equally to 2 of his friends, then 1 book will remain, it means possible number of books = 15,17,19,21,23,25,27,29If he wants to give these books equally to 3 of his friends, then 2 books will remain, it means possible number of books = 17,20,23,26,29If he wants to give these books equally to 4 of his friends, then 3 book will remain, it means possible number of books = 15,19,23,27common number is only 23 so it will be answer

Answer: A) 33.33% Explanation: Let 'A' be the cost price of property P1. Then from the given data, the selling price of P1 = Rs. 1,00,000 He got 20% loss on selling P1 ⇒A - 20A100 = 100000⇒A = 1,25,000 Therefore, the amount he lossed on selling P1 = 25,000 As ge he got no loss or gain on sale of P1 and P2, the gain on selling P2 = 25,000 But the selling price of P2 = 1,00,000 => Cost price of P2 = 75,000   Hence, the profit percentage on P2 = GainCPx 100 = 2500075000x100 = 1003= 33.33%

Answer: A) 4 days Explanation: Given that  6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days  26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days   As the work done is equal, 10(6M + 8B) = 2(26M + 48B) 60M + 80B = 52M + 96B => M = 2B => B = M/2 ……(1)   Now Put (1) in 15M + 20B => 15M + 10M = 25M Now, 6M + 8B in 10 days => (6M + 4M) 10 = 100M Then D(25M) = 100M => D = 4 days.

Answer: B) 7/2 min Explanation: Time taken to fill 2/7 = 1Then to fill full 1 = ?? = 1/(2/7) = 7/2 minutes.

Answer: A) 18 Explanation: (300 – 101)/11 = 199/11 = 18 1/1118 Numbers.